But.... Were I to own a property with an end of garden mooring, where the only access to said mooring is via my property, that mooring only exists for my own use. It is not available to anyone else who may want to use it. I am not consuming a product where there is a limited supply. Indeed there is no difference to the limited supply regardless of whether I own a boat and use my own mooring or I don't own a boat and that potential mooring remains unused. Therefore the cost of mooring by me on my EOG mooring to BW is zero.
----- Original Message ---- From: Adrian Stott <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> To: [email protected] Sent: Thursday, 25 September, 2008 9:17:19 Subject: [canals-list] Re: Working narrowboats to pay the £50 "broad" beam surcharge?! (XP) <snip> "Iain Street" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: >If the cost of a boat navigating a km is £nil, what is the cost of mooring? The two situations are very different, so different economic rules apply to them. 1. Where by consuming a product (particularly one for which there is a large potential over-supply) a consumer imposes costs on the (monopoly) supplier, it is reasonable for the user to pay a cost-plus price for it. 2. Where a consumer consumes a product in limited supply (such as moorings), then it is reasonable for him to pay the market-clearing price for it. Usually, if that price is higher than the cost of providing additional supply, that supply will be created. For moorings, the cost of providing additional ones is actually rather high, as BW found when it created the basin at Llangollen. <snip> Adrian [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
