Hi Dirk

But this is not the bias that I think most people are thinking of
(including I would say Mike who asked the question originally), i.e.
where the 2nd dataset does *not* have the same test set as the 1st
dataset, so that some indices from the 1st working set will be in the
2nd test set, and vice versa.  It's surely the presumed Rfree bias (i.e.
presumed to be lower than the true value) *after* re-refining against
the 2nd dataset that Mike is concerned about.  In any case as I said
before it's not clear what use is the Rfree against the 2nd dataset
*before* doing any refinement against that dataset, it's surely the
Rfree *after* refinement (i.e. at convergence) that's relevant.

Cheers

-- Ian

> -----Original Message-----
> From: [email protected] [mailto:[email protected]]
On
> Behalf Of Dirk Kostrewa
> Sent: 24 September 2009 13:21
> To: CCP4BB
> Subject: Re: [ccp4bb] Rfree in similar data set
> 
> Hi Ian,
> 
> consider the case where two data sets have been collected from the
same
> crystal (or a crystal from the same drop), each processed separately,
and
> the structure refined against one of the two data sets until
convergence.
> The two data sets will be somewhat different due to measurement errors
but
> still very similar. Thus, when I take the refined structure and
re-refine
> it against the second data set using the same indices for working and
test
> set (and the same refinement parameters), both the starting R and
Rfree
> will not have converged against the second data set, but will be
similar
> to the refined values from the first data set. The differences will be
> mainly caused by the measurement errors. It is this type of bias of
the
> test set that (at least) I mean. After convergence of refinement
against
> the second data set, both R and Rfree will be then very similar for
the
> two data sets.
> 
> Best regards,
> 
> Dirk.
> 
> Am 24.09.2009 um 11:56 schrieb Ian Tickle:
> 
> 
>       Hi, I beg to disagree with the 'perceived wisdom', including
just
> about
>       everyone on this BB, but my answer is NO, there should be no
bias -
>       *provided* you do the subsequent refinement properly.  First
off,
> Rfree
>       is useless as any kind of statistical measure of overfitting etc
>       *unless* the refinement has converged to the point of maximum
log
>       likelihood against the current working set.  So it's meaningless
to
> say
>       that Rfree is biased 'initially' i.e. *before* any further
> refinement is
>       done using the new data because Rfree with the new data has no
> meaning
>       at that point - it's neither biased nor unbiased, it's just
> meaningless!
>       In any case why would one want to report an Rfree *before*
> refinement -
>       what use is it?
> 
>       So we can only sensibly talk about the Rfree values *after* the
> further
>       refinement has converged - and if the refinement hasn't
converged
> then
>       Rfree bias is the least of your worries!  So are people really
> saying
>       that the Rfree at convergence using the new data is biased?  For
> that to
>       be true it would have to be possible to arrive at a different
> unbiased
>       Rfree from another starting point.  But provided your starting
point
>       wasn't a local maximum LL and you haven't gotten into a local
> maximum
>       along the way, convergence will be to a unique global maximum of
the
> LL,
>       so the Rfree must be the same whatever starting point is used
> (within
>       the radius of convergence of course).
> 
>       The other cures suggested such as SA and randomisation are IMO
at
> best a
>       waste of time and effort (i.e. it will take longer for
subsequent
>       refinement to recover from the shock to the system), and at
worst
> likely
>       to be worse than the disease they purport to cure.  For example
how
> do
>       you know what RMS shift to use in the randomisation without
causing
> the
>       structure to jump into a local maximum LL: the resulting Rfree
will
>       certainly be biased then!
> 
>       There is of course a different issue (and maybe this is what is
>       confusing some people) of comparing Rfree's from different test
> sets: we
>       showed that this introduces a random relative error in Rfree of
>       1/sqrt(2*Nfree) (where Nfree = size of test set).  However this
> effect
>       is not bias, it's random sampling error.
> 
>       Cheers
> 
>       -- Ian
> 
> 
> 
>               -----Original Message-----
> 
> 
>               From: [email protected] [mailto:owner-
> [email protected]]
> 
> 
>       On
> 
> 
>               Behalf Of Mike England
> 
> 
>               Sent: 24 September 2009 04:31
> 
> 
>               To: [email protected]
> 
> 
>               Subject: Rfree in similar data set
> 
> 
> 
>               Hi all,
> 
> 
> 
>               I will appreciate your comments on the following case:
> 
> 
> 
>               I have two datasets from the same or identical crystals.
> Initially, I
> 
> 
>               refine a structure against the first data set  and later
on
> switch to
> 
> 
>               another dataset  for further refinements.
> 
> 
>               Do you think, my Rfree will be biased as Rfree
reflections in
> second
> 
> 
>               dataset may be in fact Rwork reflections in previous
datasets
> ?
> 
> 
> 
>               Thanks in advance,
> 
> 
> 
>               Mike
> 
> 
> 
> 
> 
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> 
> *******************************************************
> Dirk Kostrewa
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> 



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