I tend to agree that at this point no minds will be changed, but I will
answer this one last scenario by saying that it is the exception that proves
the rule.

In general, I as an employer have no reason to maintain someone on my
payroll if they are not earning their salary. Unless of course it's a
disguised gift.
 Outside of that scenario, why would I do that? sooooooooo.... let this
thread end with a question not a whimper.

Dana

 On 10/5/05, Gruss Gott <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
> > Larry wrote:
> > I guess that has nothing to do with the fact that the unemployment
> > rate for those parts of germany are 2 or 3 times the national average
> > for Germany as a whole.
> >
>
> They discuss that in the piece and talk about how those people aren't
> leaving gov't assistance and entering the market.
>
> A further point would be, why don't those people move to where the
> work is? That's an example of how taxpayers are being asked to
> subsidise another's poor decision. People don't have the *right* to a
> job that pays $200k/yr just because they decide living in Antarctica
> would be cool. In the same way neither do the "working poor".
>
> Dana has often made the point that people earn their pay even if the
> gov't is forcing it beyond what the market will bear. I would ask her
> to consider this case:
>
> I'm an executive with a large corporation and decide to hire my young
> son on as a line manager except I pay him double what other starting
> line managers make. Would the same argument above apply? My son
> would be earning his pay even though I've singled him out for more pay
> simply because, say, he's a newlywed?
>
> When this happens with Mr. Bush we call it cronyism and/or nepotism
>
> 

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