No it doesn't and yes it does. How about that? :)

The disparity of wealth aggregation between top tiers and bottom tiers
is not constant in time nor is it an immutable feature of a particular
economic system.

And yes, it absolutely changes the "the fact" which is not a fact at
all but rather a politically slanted supposition on your part that it
is a hugely disproportionate share. I'd like to presume that you know
enough of statistics that you would understand that there are many
ways of looking at the same situation through the eyes of statistics
and come up with different conclusions.

A very large share of the total outlay of tax dollars? Yes, most
certainly. A very large share compared to the share of the total
wealth they have? Not at all. Quite the opposite in fact.

That is, in fact, the heart of the notion of progressive taxation. And
either you missed the memo on the notion behind it or you reject the
notion. Either would be understandable I suppose. Dissembling as if
the notion didn't exist though is rather silly.

Judah

On Wed, Oct 22, 2008 at 9:01 PM, Robert Munn <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> And unless someone is talking about going communist and nationalizing the
> wealth of individuals, it will remain that way. That doesn't change the fact
> that the top 1% already pay a hugely disproportionate share of the tax
> burden.

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