I have a question about the common practice of using OSPF and (i)bgp.

Here is my setup:


I have 4 Cisco routers (A, B, C & D). All routers are connected to each other 
through metro ethernet connections. The 4 routers have other “stuff” behind 
them speaking only OSPF and require a injected default route.
Router A and B are connected to different internet backbone providers using BGP.
Internally I use iBGP and OSPF. I do not redistribute OSPF routes into BGP, nor 
do I do the opposite.
Router A injects a default route into the network using OSPF’s 
default-information originate metric 100.
Router B also injects a default route into the network using OSPF’s 
default-information originate metric 110.

So, right now all my outbound traffic goes out through router A (because of the 
metric 100). Inbound traffic comes through both internet connections, based on 
the preferred BGP route.
Since the IGP (ospf) has the lower IGP metric (in comparison to ibgp) the ospf 
default routes (0.0.0.0/0) routes determine the flow of outbound traffic. 
Because of that, I can’t seem to “direct” outbound traffic using a local route 
map (local-preference). Ideally I would like to be able to direct outbound 
traffic as specific as I like.

What is the common setup, in terms of BGP and OSPF, on networks that resemble 
ours?

Thanks
JB




_______________________________________________
cisco-nsp mailing list  [email protected]
https://puck.nether.net/mailman/listinfo/cisco-nsp
archive at http://puck.nether.net/pipermail/cisco-nsp/

Reply via email to