Keith,
Generally the router being used to connect you to area 0 will be on the same
subnet. Therefore no routing issues. As far as loopback you have to use
the router ID as the IP address of the router so if you are using a loopback
address to be the router ID that would explain it.
Cory
-----Original Message-----
From: Keith Townsend [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Sent: Thursday, November 09, 2000 1:01 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: OSPF Area virtual links
When creating a virtual link between an ABR non-directly connected are to an
ABR in the backbone should you always use the loopback address for the
virtual link. Doyle does this on page 943 of his Routing TCP/IP book.
Secondly is there a route to the loopback of these two routers. Maybe I'm
forgetting something but how do the two routers find routes to each other if
you're not advertising L0 and there is no static routes to the L0.
Thanks,
Keith
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