Sorry.. I think I was wrong in my previous mail, it is correct for dial in
PC to show its gateway to be its own ip address of itself. Because after
dialing into router, the dial in PC is like directly connected to Router1
and it is the only device connected. Therefore it is okay for PC's gateway
to be its own IP. 

Regarding why your PC can't reach network A, pls check the routing table and
gateway of router1.  If your router1 can't reach network A, then your PC
also can't reach network A.



-----Original Message-----
From: Sim, CT (Chee Tong) [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Sent: Monday, April 09, 2001 4:30 PM
To: 'leo'; [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: RE: how can the router tell the dialer-in pc what is the
gateway


For me, I use the access server for dial in and I define it to get IP from
the DHCP server so the default gateway is automatically assigned by DHCP
server as well.
add this line....

ip dhcp-server <ip of DHCP server>

Tong


-----Original Message-----
From: leo [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Sent: Monday, April 09, 2001 3:16 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: how can the router tell the dialer-in pc what is the gateway


    PSTN              DDN(PPP)
PCs-----------Router1-------------Router2|
                                         |------network A (188.205.0.0)
                                         |
the ip address of the router1's ethernet  is 1.2.3.4,the pc connecting the
router1 via hub can acess network A,
the PCs use PSTN dialer in the router1's a/s,and get an ip address which is
in the router1's address pool,in router1,i use  async-bootp gateway
1.2.3.4,but after the pc dialer in the router,I use the command "winipcfg"
in win98,it tells me that its gateway is the ip address of itself!so the
dialer-in pc can't access  network A
Could someone tell me how can the pc access network A (except in the pc,use
"route add default 1.2.3.4)?
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