Check your addressing. Both PCs should be on the same subnet, and do not
require a default gateway. A PC should not be configured with the IP address
of a bridge as the default gateway.
CM
-----Original Message-----
From: Philip Barker
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: 04/06/01 20:22
Subject: Transparent Bridging ? [7:7126]
Hi Group,
I vill say ziss only vonce.
Okay, its my second attempt at trying to work out how I can bridge IP
across
to 2500's.
I have 2 2500's configured with "no ip routing". 2 PC's are connected at
either end, i.e one to bridge 1
and one to bridge 2. I have a sniffer on both PC's. I am attempting to
ping
from one PC to the other.
IEEE spanning tree is applied on both bridges. The bridges are connected
via
a
serial cable and the serial
ports of the bridges as well as the Ethernet ports are in bridge group
1.
I have verified spanning tree operation and one of the serial ports has
been
elected root port on bridge 1,
the other bridge is the designated bridge. Ref : Radia Perlman,
Interconnections p.83.
So far so good.
I have configured the PC's with a default gateway to the IP address of
each
of
the bridges.
When I attempt to ping from one PC to the other, I can see from my
Sniffer
trace that the PC ARP's for
the MAC Address of the bridge, this ARP is successful and the PC then
sends
out an ICMP echo request.
This echo request appears to be my problem since the destination MAC
address
of this packet contains
the Ethernet Mac address of the local bridge and the local bridge
consequently
disregards the packet.
Should the PC have an ARP entry installed for the destination IP address
that
I am pinging ?
Has anyone achieved this scenario ? or am I way off mark with my
thinking
here.
The reason I set this LAB up was because so many questions appear to be
being
asked at CCIE written level
akin to this setup i.e can PC 1 ping PC 2 in similar arrangement using
(RSRB/DLSW+/SRB etc)
Any comments welcome.
Regards,
Phil.
Message Posted at:
http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=7147&t=7126
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