Whoever told you that should be smacked soundly and then asked to
clarify and justify the statement.
In what context was this discussed? Off the top of my head I have no
idea what this might be referring to. It requires no special effort to
get the link up and running.
If you have a Cisco router on each end, set the IP address and you're
off and running. If either router is non-Cisco then you'll also need to
set PPP encapsulation. That's all that's needed for connectivity.
Perhaps this person was somehow referring to database exchanges in
OSPF, but that also doesn't make much sense because Master and Slave are
chosen dynamically. Which one is which is of no consequence.
Hmm....I really just can't figure that one out. Please let us know
more about the specifics. It would be interesting to figure out what
this person is trying to communicate to you.
HTH,
John
>>> "Marshal Schoener" 8/27/01 2:44:07 PM
>>>
Hey all,
I was told that on a point-to-point dedicated T1, one router needs to
be
setup as a master, and the other router
needs to be setup as a slave...
Is there any truth to this, and if so, how would I go about doing it?
I have never heard of anything like this before.
Again, it isn't frame-relay, it's just a dedicated point-to-point
link.
Thanks a million in advance,
Message Posted at:
http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=17441&t=17437
--------------------------------------------------
FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html
Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
