Yes, they can both be in area 0. PID is a Cisco specific function that allows for more than 1 OSPF process run on a router at once. It has local signifigance only.
-- RFC 1149 Compliant. ""Justin M. Clark"" wrote in message [EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]... > when configuring ospf the first command is: > > router ospf process-id > > Does the process id have any signifigance? for instance, If i have one > router with pid of 10 and another with pid 12 can both of them function in > area 0. If so, where does the process-id come into effect. What is it > specified for? > > Thanks, > Justin Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=37900&t=37899 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
