I suppose this would depend on the behavior of PC2. Will it send ARP requests for all destinations if it doesn't have a default gateway configured? If so -- and you have Proxy ARP configured on Router B -- then yes, Router B will respond with its own MAC address, allowing PC2 to communicate with PC1.
However, I don't recall that being normal behavior for a PC without a default gateway. I have heard, though, that if you use the IP address of the PC as its default gateway that some PCs will ARP for everything. It sounds like that's the sort of behavior you're looking for. To determine if Proxy ARP is enabled on Router B, use 'show ip int e1'. Somewhere in that output should be your answer. John >>> "Henrique Duarte" 5/13/02 3:50:37 PM >>> John, thanks for the feedback. So PC2 doesn't have a default gateway configured and will send a broadcast for the address of PC1. Since router B is on the same subnet and "knows" where PC1 is, shouldn't it respond as a proxy? -H ----- Original Message ----- From: "John Neiberger" To: Sent: Monday, May 13, 2002 5:13 PM Subject: Re: ARP problems, anyone? [7:44108] > Unless you're bridging, ARP doesn't function here the way I _think_ you > think it does. > > If PC2 receives an incoming ICMP echo request and it wants to generate > a response, it first compares the network portion of the destination > address to its own subnet. If you're not bridging they will be > different. In that case, PC2 will not send an ARP request for PC1, it > will simply forward the packet to the default gateway. > > Of course, at some point PC2 will send an ARP request to get the > hardware address of Router B, but it will never need to know the > hardware address of PC1. > > Now, if you're bridging then PC1 and PC2 should be on the same subnet > and neither would require a default gateway to speak to the other. > > HTH, > John > > >>> "Henrique Duarte" 5/13/02 2:50:43 PM >>> > OK Networking gurus. I hope you can help me with this easy one: > > > > e0 e1 e0 e1 > PC1-------router A----------routerB---------PC2 > > > PC1 can ping routerB (e1) > PC2 can ping routerA (e0) > > PC1 cannot ping PC2 > > > PC2 has NO default gateway (and is not supposed to have one). I've > added a > static arp entry on PC2: PC1's IP address point to routerB e1's MAC > address. Why do I need the default gateway even though I already > configured > a static arp entry on PC2? > > Thanks in advance, > > -H [EMAIL PROTECTED] Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=44146&t=44108 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
