Just when I thought I understood the T1 world pretty well we've run into a situation that is thoroughly confusing me.
I was under the impression that channelized T1 services used 24 timeslots. I call that 'channelized' because it has 24 distinct 'channels'. It's my understanding that unchannelized T1 doesn't use the 24 timeslots and instead sends one giant 192-bit frame. At one of our locations we are muxing voice and data traffic onto a single T1. At each end we split off certain channels to a router and other channels over to the PBX. To do this, wouldn't the T1 *have* to be channelized, since we're separating the channels at the CSU/DSU? According to our provider, that circuit is unchannelized. If a circuit is truly unchannelized, how would the CSU/DSU be able to accurately split the T1 into two separate streams based on channel information? To be more clear, let's say we have the CSU/DSU configured to split channels 1-12 to the router and 13-24 to the PBX. This splitting function is based on the assumption that channels exist on the incoming T1. If they don't exist and we have one giant frame instead of 24 smaller frames, how could this possibly be working?? Yowza...my head hurts. John Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=47844&t=47844 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
