Sorry for digging this up, just got bit hard by this behaviour and I'm wondering what the rationale was for not defining `identical?` as `keyword-identical?` currently is, and instead adding an additional `fast-identical?`.
This way Clojure/ClojureScript code using `identical?` remains portable without breaking, and `fast-identical?` could be used internally and by folks familiar with the platform-specific ramifications. Or am I missing a subtlety here? Thanks a lot, cheers! :-) -- Note that posts from new members are moderated - please be patient with your first post. --- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "ClojureScript" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to [email protected]. To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. Visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/clojurescript.
