Interestingly enough when I got my economics degree I did not have a
grade problem.
In the historical example there often was a deed of sorts to a commons
- a provision in the royal charter of a town would designate certain
lands as commons as the town was recognized as having a corporate
existence separate from any individual townspeople.
This is distinct from a market, wherein the crown might grant a
monopoly on trade out of a port or such to a foreign land, but could
not control what happened on the other end.
Matthew
On Jul 17, 2009, at 10:47 AM, t.piwowar wrote:
On Jul 17, 2009, at 10:09 AM, Matthew Taylor wrote:
Yes, it is a bit of jargon. Strangely, none of them can produce a
title or deed of ownership.
A circular argument. By definition The Commons have no "deed of
ownership." Circling back to my original comment: some of you have
an obvious problem understanding the concept of The Commons. Your
responses have proved this to be true. QED.
You are lucky I'm not grading your papers.
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