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There are 2 messages in this issue.

Topics in this digest:

      1. Re: Lenition or Elision or What?
           From: R A Brown <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
      2. Re: [OT] English [dZ]
           From: R A Brown <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>


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Message: 1         
   Date: Sat, 10 Dec 2005 15:19:59 +0000
   From: R A Brown <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Subject: Re: Lenition or Elision or What?

caeruleancentaur wrote:
[snip]

> FWIW here are the definitions from AHD:
> 
> syneresis: The drawing together into one syllable of two consecutive 
> vowels ordinarily pronounced separately.
> 
> synizesis: The contraction of two syllables into one by joining in 
> pronunciation two adjacent vowels. Compare syneresis. (Interesting 
> Greek etymology: to sit down together!)
> 
> At first I couldn't see the difference!  But now I think I do.  The 
> definition of synizesis mentions pronunciation specifically, so I 
> would imagine that there is a coalescence of pronunciation, but not 
> of spelling. 

That's correct. There was also in Ancient Greek a feature called 
'crasis' (mixing).

If I take the Senjecan example m-i-ât-a:
(a) pronounced ['mjat_da] but written miâta - synizesis
(b) pronounced ['mjat_da] and written, say*, mjâta - syn(a)eresis
(c) if i+a run together to give, say [e], and we have mêta ['met_da] - 
crasis.

*I believe Senjecan doesn't have the sound [j].

and, of course
(d) coalescence [m_jat-da]   :-)

> If that is the case, I would think that the 
> Senjecan /mi/ --> /mï/ would be synizesis.  

Presumably you don't mean slashes. I thought |ï| was used in Senjecan as 
a sign of palatalization? if so, it would be coalescence.


-- 
Ray
==================================
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.carolandray.plus.com
==================================
MAKE POVERTY HISTORY


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Message: 2         
   Date: Sat, 10 Dec 2005 15:30:58 +0000
   From: R A Brown <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Subject: Re: [OT] English [dZ]

Mark J. Reed wrote:
> On 12/9/05, R A Brown <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
[snip]
>>
>>Precisely - after 1066, Norman French spelling conventions replaced the
>>Old English ones.
> 
> 
> Was it just a spelling convention change?  

Yes.

> I thought that words which
> previously had |j| began to be pronounced with |dZ|; they can't all be
> reanalyzed spelling-pronunciations, can they?

Not as far as native words are concerned. the Old English [j] was 
spelled |g| and occurred before front vowels. In the post-Norman 
spelling it was denoted either with |y| or with the Old English version 
of |g| which we call yogh. The English initial [j] never became [dZ]

The Vulgar Latin [j] however had become [dj] or [dz] in the 
proto-Romance period. When French words came to us spelled |j| or 'soft 
g' the sound was already [dZ]. English has not changed it.

> 
>>No. In Old French |j| was pronounced /dZ/, and |ch| was pronounced /tS/. 
>>[...] In France the
>>earlier affricates were leveled to simple fricatives sometime in the middle 
>>of  the13th
>>century.
> 
> 
> Huh.  Wouldn't have guessed that - I can see /j/ -> /Z/ -> /dZ/, but
> /j/ -> /dZ/ -> /Z/ is not exactly a monotonic-feeling sequence.

Mis-spelling in the late Roman period make it quite clear that the Latin 
/j/ (which was always geminate between vowels) had become an affricate 
in Vulgar Latin.

> 
> As far as I can tell, 1066 is  about 500 years before the consistent
> use of |I| and |J| to distinguish the vocalic and consonantal sounds,
> so I'm assuming there was a significant period when both French and
> English (to whatever extent it was written at all) had words spelled
> with an |I| that was  pronounced [dZ].  True?

Absolutely.

I think Tristan has covered other points I might have made.

-- 
Ray
==================================
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.carolandray.plus.com
==================================
MAKE POVERTY HISTORY


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