There are 4 messages in this issue.

Topics in this digest:

1.1. Re: Sold here / for sale / on sale / on sale here    
    From: Ph. D.
1.2. Re: Sold here / for sale / on sale / on sale here    
    From: R A Brown

2a. THEORY: Conjugogenesis.    
    From: Leonardo Castro
2b. Re: THEORY: Conjugogenesis.    
    From: R A Brown


Messages
________________________________________________________________________
1.1. Re: Sold here / for sale / on sale / on sale here
    Posted by: "Ph. D." [email protected] 
    Date: Sun Jun 9, 2013 5:59 am ((PDT))

Padraic Brown wrote:
> --- On Fri, 6/7/13, G. van der Vegt <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>> The point isn't that purchase isn't a verb but that buy is not a noun.
>> Sale is always a noun.
> For what it's worth, "did you sale it" gets almost a quarter of a million
> hits; "can I sale" gets more than half; "I'm going to sale" gets over a
> million. Even the perfect ("X saled it") gets a few thousand.
>
> Just saying!
>
> No comments on whether it's "right" or "wrong", just that for some tens of
> thousands of speakers of English, "sale" has been well and truly verbed.
>
> Padraic

I suspect these are misspellings of "sell."  In some
varieties of American English, "sell" and "sale" can
sound very similar.

I'm not sure, but I've gotten the impression that
misspellings are rather common on the intertubes. :-)

--Ph. D.





Messages in this topic (32)
________________________________________________________________________
1.2. Re: Sold here / for sale / on sale / on sale here
    Posted by: "R A Brown" [email protected] 
    Date: Sun Jun 9, 2013 6:15 am ((PDT))

On 09/06/2013 13:59, Ph. D. wrote:
[snip]
>
> I suspect these are misspellings of "sell."  In some
> varieties of American English, "sell" and "sale" can
> sound very similar.

... and in some British varieties also    :)

-- 
Ray
==================================
http://www.carolandray.plus.com
==================================
"language … began with half-musical unanalysed expressions
for individual beings and events."
[Otto Jespersen, Progress in Language, 1895]





Messages in this topic (32)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
2a. THEORY: Conjugogenesis.
    Posted by: "Leonardo Castro" [email protected] 
    Date: Sun Jun 9, 2013 6:03 am ((PDT))

I'm interested on how verb conjugation was originated. Any comments or
references?

Studying Old Tupi, I guess that they possibly originated from
verb-subject agglutination. Verbs like Italian "faccio" looks like "do
I" (verb "facc" + pronoun "io"), but I guess this analysis should be
done in proto-Indo-European.

Até mais!

Leonardo





Messages in this topic (2)
________________________________________________________________________
2b. Re: THEORY: Conjugogenesis.
    Posted by: "R A Brown" [email protected] 
    Date: Sun Jun 9, 2013 6:27 am ((PDT))

On 09/06/2013 14:02, Leonardo Castro wrote:
> I'm interested on how verb conjugation was originated.
> Any comments or references?
>
> Studying Old Tupi, I guess that they possibly originated
> from verb-subject agglutination.

This does seem to be the origin.  If ancient Greek is
anything to go by, it would seem that this was the case for
past active tenses (though most verbs have a thematic vowel
o~e between verb base and the personal ending.  The personal
endings were suffixed to show non-past and medio-passive voice.

In Latin this is modified, and a system of tense markers
developed to go between the verb base and the personal
ending; also Latin ditched the inherited medio-passive
endings and developed its own passive personal endings
which, however, did not survive into Vulgar Latin or Romance.

> Verbs like Italian "faccio" looks like "do I" (verb
> "facc" + pronoun "io"),

Pure coincidence!

> but I guess this analysis should be done in
> proto-Indo-European.

Yes, it should   :)

In fact _faccio_ is from Latin _faciō_ = faci-ō, where -ō
IIRC is from an earlier -ōm, which was originally a
subjunctive form (the indicative being -om, which survives
in some ancient Greek past tenses as -on).  The final -m was
the original 1st person marker and -ō- was a lengthened
thematic vowel.

So, yes, although certainly verb-subject agglutination is
involved, there is a lot more besides.

It would take rather more than an email to do the subject
justice.    ;)

-- 
Ray
==================================
http://www.carolandray.plus.com
==================================
"language … began with half-musical unanalysed expressions
for individual beings and events."
[Otto Jespersen, Progress in Language, 1895]





Messages in this topic (2)





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