From: "Michael Nguyen" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
[snip]
> Come to think of it....the actual hostnames as given by "hostname" are
"hp1"
> and "dev2". Is this the problem, i.e. that "hp1" is not literally the
same
> as the FQDN hp1.test.spam?
Ok, that fixed it.
I have a question regarding the suggested implementation for this.
Currently, I chop off the test.spam part in the SQL query:
MYSQL_AUXOPTIONS_FIELD CONCAT("mailhost=",SUBSTRING_INDEX(mailhost,
'.test.spam', 1))
But I'm just afraid that something will change in the future and this will
break. I'm not sure what could possibly change, but I like to try to keep
things like this out. The thing is that I want to modify the current DB
schema as little as possible. Having the mailhost value in the DB be an
FQDN does two things: 1) it removes any possible ambiguity as to where the
mail should be going and 2) it pleases our chosen MTA.
We could also rename our servers to a FQDN, but that is also kind of
non-standard in our environment. How is this typically setup?
Thanks, Sam.
Michael
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