On Wed, 21 Mar 2001, Reese wrote:

> It acknowledges the existence of common law.  Now that this has been cleared
> up, your contention is that the US is not bound by, and does not follow ANY
> of the precepts of English common law, is that correct?

No, Reese, that isn't my contention.

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         If the law is based on precedence, why is the Constitution
         not the final precedence since it's the primary authority?

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