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To: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
Date: Mon, 07 Aug 2000 10:51:57 
Subject: RE: Tahir on wage labor and commodity production 

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Tahir,

I was hoping that this two-value logic ended with the Cold War.  You are 
unarguably right that money exists for the purpose of mediating exchange values, 
or as you put it, to facilitate the exchange of "commodities."  But I am 
convinced that it is just this word "commodity" that requires a working 
definition just now, because I maintain that your other argument, that wage 
labor is presupposed by commodities, is not true.  In fact, this is just the 
essence of the "Third Way" approach, or what is sometimes termed "free market 
socialism."  Producer cooperatives like Mondragon have been demonstrating for 
many years that commodities can be produced by associations of producers who 
simply split uup the proceeds among themselves, without an exploiting class to 
put their heavy fingers on the scales of division of "surplus value."  It is 
rather capitalist production alone that presupposes wage labor.  But markets and 
commodities get along just fine without it.
Peace,
Ken



But how can you agree and then still argue for money? What
is money for other than commodity production (which means
production for exchange, remember)

> Money means wage labour

not necesarily

> means markets

you can have those without wage labour

>  means capitalism means the state.

you can have states without markets and markets without
states 
as to capitalism, well, it depends on your defintion (how
many times have I 
said that?)

You can have all of these things separated in a purely ideal
and conceptual universe, but historically your separations
are nonsense. States as we know them came into being to
regulate class conflicts, to protect markets, private
property, trade routes, etc. Why else? As for capitalism, it
is just the logical extension of commodity production
throughout society, for which development you need money and
wage labour.

 





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