-Caveat Lector-

No!  The Amendment says, in effect:   _Because_ a well regulated militia is
necessary, _then_ the right to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed!
The arms involved should be those normally used by soldiers in WAR!  Assault
rifles, if not 50 Caliber Machine guns, should be legal!

THE RIGHT TO KEEP AND BEAR ARMS SHALL NOT BE INFRINGED....it doesn't matter
why....that is what the Bill of Rights says!  No licensing, no registration,
no prohibition of carrying concealed weapons!    The Founding Fathers were
all gun nuts!  The first thing the British tried to do in Boston was seize
supplies of powder and ball!  The Founding Fathers knew that liberty must be
defended on occasion by just violence!

Citizens who misuse guns should be punished severely.  Using a gun in a
crime of any kind is threatened murder and should result in the death
penalty or life in prison.


-----Original Message-----
From: Dr. Ken Larsen <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED] <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Date: Wednesday, June 02, 1999 2:48 PM
Subject: RE: Constitutional gun control


One friend wrote:

>Ken,
>
>But the 2nd Amendment gives a specific "well-regulated" purpose for bearing
>arms, right?  It does not use the word individual.  Also, the Supreme
>Court, or so I have been told, has never interpreted the 2nd amendment to
>apply on the level of the individual.


Well, sir, we can accept the definitions of our enemies, or we can use the
definitions of our Founders.  "Well-regulated" means "well trained and
well-equipped," not "well-limited."  "People" means "individuals."  It does
not refer to some group of people.  The Federalist Papers make it clear
that the Second Amendment applies to the right of each individual to be
equipped with arms so that each state might have a "well-regulated"
militia.  If gun ownership were a state right, they would have said "the
right of the states to keep and bear arms."  In the Tenth Amendment, both
"states" and "people" are used, indicating they are separate, and "people"
cannot mean "states."  The Fourth Amendment says, "The right of the people
to be secure in their persons, houses, papers and effects, against
unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated."  Do you think
that the "people" in the Fourth Amendment are different from the "people"
in the Second?

One of the purposes of the Constitution is to protect you and me, "the
people" from usurpations of power by the government.  The Supreme Court
Justices are appointed by the President and ratified by the Senate.  Are
they on the side of the government or the people?  What makes you think
they would not be motivated to interpret the Constitution in favor of
government and against the rights of the people?  Where does the
Constitution say it is whatever the Supreme Court says it is?  If the
people are willing to surrender their Holy Constitution to the whims of the
Supreme Court, they no longer deserve its protections and they will lose
them.

I once wrote a petition on which we got over 20,000 signatures, asking my
Congressman to use his constitutional powers ("with such exceptions, and
under such regulations as the Congress shall make." -- Article III, Section
2) to restrict the Supreme Court's power to review state abortion laws.  He
said he could not restrain the Supreme Court because they had the power to
interpret the constitutionality of anything Congress did.  That important
check and balance held by Congress over the Supreme Court has been lost due
to our traditional enthronment of the Supreme Court.  Actually, the
Constitution gave no such sweeping powers to the Supreme Court.  They stole
that power in Marbury vs Madison in 1803.  I am just trying to challenge
that 200-year-old myth.  I may stand alone, but I am right.

Ken

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