On 6/4/21 9:14 AM, Simon Wiesheier wrote:

So intuitively speaking, what is the effect of the lumped integration? From a mathematical viewpoint there are no more couplings between the DoFs. But does this lead to lower nodal values, higher nodal values or is this context dependent?

I have to admit that I have no intuition.

Do both schemes converge? To the same solution?

Best
 W.


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Wolfgang Bangerth          email:                 [email protected]
                           www: http://www.math.colostate.edu/~bangerth/

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