Nswers ever present in the soul, the answer of plain human reasoning,
and the deeper answer which revelation brings seriously home to us. In
regard of the first answer, does not plain common sense justify us in
maintaining that the writers meant what they _wrote_, and that when they
used certain Greek words in the mighty message they were delivering to
their fellow-men and to all who should hereafter receive it, they did
mean that those words were to be understood in the plain and simple
meaning that every plain reader would assign to them. They were not
speaking; they were writing; and they were writing what they knew was to
be for all time. Thus to take an example from the passages above
referred to of which Bishop Westcott makes such impressive use, who can
doubt, with any fair show of reason--however frequent may be the
interchange of the particular prepositions in the first century--that,
in those passages, when St. Matthew wrote [Greek text] he did mean
_into_; and that when St. Paul used [Greek text], he did mean _in_, in
the simplest sense of the word? But to the devout Christian we have a
far deeper answer than the answer we have just considered. In t

<<inline: demeaning.jpg>>

Reply via email to