On Thursday, 4 May 2017 at 13:19:43 UTC, MysticZach wrote:
On Thursday, 4 May 2017 at 08:04:22 UTC, Timon Gehr wrote:
On 03.05.2017 01:09, MysticZach wrote:
That's true. Two points, though: If the range of error is
within
1/(n*(n-1)), with array length n,
It's not though. For example, [1,1,1,0,...,0] (length 29), you
get 0 and 2 each with probability 43/116, but 1 only with
probability 30/116.
It might be interesting to figure out how far from uniform the
distribution can get.
Or how close it can get, depending on the range of intervals
used. My math skill is shaky here.
Maybe there's no way to deterministically jump to every element
of an array with equal probability of hitting any given element
satisfying a given predicate first. It sure would be cool if
there were.
Within a small range of error, I mean.
