On 7/1/11 5:18 PM, Timon Gehr wrote:
There are 4 possibilities:
1. Both parent and child contract would pass.
2. Parent passes, child would fail.
3. Parent fails, child passes.
4. Parent fails, child fails.
The only case where any statement can be made is case 3: "Contracts are
certainly
well-formed".
You cannot deduce the well- or ill-formedness of the contracts from any of the
other outcomes.
In my opinion, one *is* able to declare the child contract invalid in
case 2 – if the parent passes but the child fails, it certainly violates
the »loosening« property of in contract inheritance. If you don't think
so, could you please explain your doubts in more detail?
David
