> i understand you don't mean legally as in i go to jail. > > my question is why do the registrars require a 1 to 1 mapping (if they > even do -- if not, why does opensrs)? > > the root servers provide A records for registered nameservers, but not PTR > records. having 2 A records to the same ip works fine. > > an example is cr.yp.to's nameservers: > additional: a.ns.yp.to 235171 A 131.193.178.181 > additional: b.ns.yp.to 235171 A 131.193.178.181 > > i can see no technical reasons of why this should be avoided, nor > anything in rfcs that gives this method special consideration against the > norm (and it's "legal" in the norm). RFC1034 says: "A given zone will be available from several name servers to insure its availability in spite of host or communication link failure. By administrative fiat, we require every zone to be available on at least two servers, and many zones have more redundancy than that." Yes, I know it doesn't exactly say _that_.... OTOH 1. By having the above system, what prevents everyone registering one gazillion nameservers? I guess you know what that would mean. (Or even using nameserver-registration instead of using DNS servers. I had a client who instead of using nameservers for his www.whatever.com domain, registered www.whatever.com as a nameserver...) 2. Can we please stop this thread? :-) - Cs.
