Thank you, that gives a clearer picture.
Charles-H. Schulz wrote: > > It is not accurate in the sense that in order to contribute to OpenOffice > developers should assign their copyright to Oracle, while there's no such > thing for LibreOffice. Since The Document Foundation has not submitted its > copyright (or the ones of its contributors) to Oracle, Oracle cannot get > our > contributions but we can get theirs. I don't know whether that makes LO > get > stronger while OOo stagnates, as I feel we have other reasons to explain > that pattern, but it could be a possible outcome of this situation. > > This is true for two completely different reasons: 1) the code is complex > and was never made really easier for outside contributors to participate > 2)Oracle had an habit of exercising tight control over patches and took > time > to integrate them. However that has changed in LibreOffice, see below. > > Well this has already happened six months ago and is happening as we speak > :-) One of the greatest success of LibreOffice so far is to have > aggregated > the Novell/Suse developers, the Red Hat ones and the Ubuntu/Canonical > around > this project. But even they are only a tiny fraction of our developers' > community. Enthusiasm, as you wrote, and much more open development > process > have achieved what was never achieved in 10 years of OpenOffice.org: in 6 > months we moved from around 15 developers to around 160 developers, not > counting the localizers. I applaud this development. OO/LO are the only serious competitors to Microsoft Office and I am sure that MO's price would be double or three times what it is now if not for them. Microsoft's insistence on a secret proprietary standard for their files is a disgrace and I do not understand why the authorities in the U.S. and EU tolerate it. That said, I wonder how the proportions break down when looked at not in numbers of developers but in lines of code produced? Also, I am having trouble wrapping my head around the notion of "copyright assignment". While this is the law in the U.S., I thought that the EU considers copyright "inalienable", so how can a European assign copyright even if s/he wants to? -- View this message in context: http://nabble.documentfoundation.org/Two-questions-about-course-of-LO-tp2757230p2758301.html Sent from the Discuss mailing list archive at Nabble.com. -- Unsubscribe instructions: E-mail to discuss+h...@documentfoundation.org Posting guidelines + more: http://wiki.documentfoundation.org/Netiquette List archive: http://listarchives.documentfoundation.org/www/discuss/ *All messages sent to this list will be publicly archived and cannot be deleted*
