[EMAIL PROTECTED] (Jason Owen) writes:
>[EMAIL PROTECTED] (James Ankeny) writes:
>[snip]
>>Typically, a binomial rv is not thought of as a statistic, at least in these
>>books, but this is the only way that the approximation makes sense to me.
>Actually, the binomial rv is the sufficient statistic for the data,
>which are represented as the sequence of 0/1's from the Bernoulli
>trials.
Cripes... I meant that the binomial rv is the sufficient statistic for p.
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