Dennis Roberts wrote:
> the discussion of comparing variances brings to mind the following ... and
> is related to the post i just sent re: hyp testing
>
> let's assume that we are interested whether there is some difference in
> treatment effects ... as measured by means ... our null is the mu1 = mu2
>
> now, we use the 'standard' t test ... and forgive me, pooled variances ...
> where the assumption is that this is a test of MEANS ... not differences
in
> variances ... so we assume equal variances.
>
> but, given the data ... we suspect that there might be a difference in
> variances so ... we do the (not preferred method as has been mentioned a
> few times) classic F test ... first s square on top divided by second s
> square on the bottom ....
>
> HOWEVER ... as has been pointed out ... this test assumes for proper
> interpretation that the populations are normally distributed ...
> SOOOOOOOOOOOOOO ... given simple dotplots of the samples of data ... we
> think that there could be some non normality going on here ...
> SOOOOOOOOOOOO ... we look for a test of normality ... and of course, when
> we find one, there will be assumptions for IT too
>
> thus, what we are really interested is the difference in population means
> ... BUT, before we can look at this ... we have to check the equal
variance
> assumption ... BUT ... before we can look at this we ... need to check on
> the normality assumption of IT ....
"She swallowed the cat to catch the bird, she swallowed the bird to
catch the spider, she swallowed the spider to catch the fly... I don't know
_why_ she swallowed the fly."
First off, the chain is unnecessary. Even with pooled variance the t
test is generally better than (eeeew!) the F test; and there is no reason to
use the pooled t test.
Secondly, the chain just does not work. In almost every case, if test T
(testing H)makes assumption A, A is _more_ restrictive than not-A. In other
words, if I tell you that a naturally arising test (or other inference
method) depends on one of the following assumptions:
(*) The data are iid from a Beta-distributed population
(**) The data are iid from a population whose distribution is anything
but Beta
(***) The data are not iid, but can have any nontrivial dependence.
you will surely be able to guess which one. The trouble is that if we want
to do a second test S to test assumption A, we will have to use A as the
null hypothesis - and then we cannot prove it, only disprove it or fail to
disprove it. The process should thus be:
do test S
reject: A is false, do not do T
fail to reject: A is unproved, so do not do T.
Curiously, researchers don't like this! However,
do test S
reject: A is false, do not do T
fail to reject: A is undecided, do T
reject: report rejection of H
Fail to reject: report non-rejection of H
is not logically valid. If there is not enugh data to determine whether T is
valid, such a process leads to T being done and the results reported!
Conversely, if there are enormous amounts of data, T may never get done
[despite the fact that in many cases that the large sample size will
increase robustness]
Now, I suppose that in principle, the hypothesis test S could - under
some circumstances - be replaced by two one-sided tests. EG, for the t test
test S+ : is there evidence that V1/V2 is less than some appropriate
upper bound?
test S- : is there evidence that V1/V2 is greater than some appropriate
lower bound?
If the answer is "yes" in both cases, do T.
or by an interval estimate:
Construct a 95% CI for V1/V2.
If the interval lies entirely within a specified range, do T.
I have never seen this done or suggested - in the F-before-T case, for
obvious reasons of relative robustness!
-Robert Dawson
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