At 11:08 AM 5/17/00 -0400, you wrote:
>On Wed, 17 May 2000 01:57:41 GMT, [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
>
> < snip, stuff from previous response. About F-max >
>
> > ... And finally could one say that there
> > is a "significant" difference in heteroscedasticity between the "A"
> > samples than the "B" samples based soley on the difference between the
> > F-max statistics? Of course if one or the other is significant at the
> > 95% level then it's a "no brainer" but even in that case is it possible
> > to compare the F-max statistics assuming the means are not equal a
> > priori?
it's a no brainer even if there is not any 'significant' difference ... the
chances that the variabilities are the same (no matter how you define
variability)are so remote ... that we might as well assume that to be true
(ie, that they are different)
the issue here is ... is the difference big enough and/or important enough
... that it will impact on other things you want to do where assumptions
are ALSO made about variabilities in the groups/populations
it may or may not ... and anything inbetween too
Dennis Roberts, EdPsy, Penn State University
208 Cedar Bldg., University Park PA 16802
Email: [EMAIL PROTECTED], AC 814-863-2401, FAX 814-863-1002
WWW: http://roberts.ed.psu.edu/users/droberts/drober~1.htm
FRAMES: http://roberts.ed.psu.edu/users/droberts/drframe.htm
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