In article <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>,
Julian Taylor <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>dz wrote:
>> Hi, anybody knows how to caculate the variance of x/y? where x and y are two
>> independent variables with normal dis n(a1,b1) and
>> n(a2,b2) respectively.
>> Thank you.
>This was posted by me only about two weeks ago.
This question seems to come up a lot lately. If X and Y
are independent normal random variables with Y being
constant with probability 1 and X not being 0 with
probability 1, neither the mean nor the variance of X/Y
exist. This is also the case if they are jointly
normal, under slightly different conditions.
--
This address is for information only. I do not claim that these views
are those of the Statistics Department or of Purdue University.
Herman Rubin, Dept. of Statistics, Purdue Univ., West Lafayette IN47907-1399
[EMAIL PROTECTED] Phone: (765)494-6054 FAX: (765)494-0558
===========================================================================
This list is open to everyone. Occasionally, less thoughtful
people send inappropriate messages. Please DO NOT COMPLAIN TO
THE POSTMASTER about these messages because the postmaster has no
way of controlling them, and excessive complaints will result in
termination of the list.
For information about this list, including information about the
problem of inappropriate messages and information about how to
unsubscribe, please see the web page at
http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/
===========================================================================
