Radford Neal wrote:
>
> In article <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>,
> James Ankeny <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
> >... if the distribution is
> >heavily skewed to the right, say like income, why do we want an interval for
> >the population mean, when we are taught that the median is a better measure
> >of central tendency for skewed distributions?
>
> As another poster has said, one reason is technical convenience. A
> more fundamental reason, though, is that the median is probably not
> the best thing to look at, whatever you might have been taught.
But that's not what he said - he said it was _better_ than the mean, as
a criticism of using the mean.
-Robert Dawson
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