Paul Bernhardt wrote: > I've never really thought of it in these terms, so, to see if I > understand correctly, let me state it differently. There is one point > through which you are sure the regression line passe, X-bar,Y-bar The > terms for slope and intercept are estimates based on the data and have > associated error. The divergence of the 'confidence bands' is a > consequence of the combination of extremes of slope and intercept. Is > that what you were saying? Therefore the divergence has nothing to do > with the relative paucity of data at the extremes, nor would > 'oversampling of the extremes' remove this divergence characteristic. > Right?
Exactly. Of course oversampling at the extremes will reduce the error of the slope, and hence the divergence of the confidence band will be reduced as well. . . ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at: . http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ . =================================================================
