In article <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>, les ander <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> Yes, there is an upper bound to the data and i should have said > binomial. However, for the null hypothesis i am not sure if p=0.5 > is appropriate since i want to actually test for hypothesis that > there is no dependence on the input variable. i am measuring some > discrete characteristic of a some object as a function of the > discrete length (i.e. 1 unit, 2units etc) and the when i plot this > measure (which is length normalized measure) i see that there is > some correlation i.e. it looks like a binomial distribution with p = > 0.1 . I had expected to see that this measure should not vary with > length . Does'nt this mean that I should calculate some measure of > nonuniformity? (i.e. compare it Uniform(0,Length) ) ? It seems that what you actually have is a regression problem. It probably has nothing to do with testing for "uniformity". Instead, you perhaps need to test whether a regression coefficient is zero or not. You haven't said enough to tell what's really going on, though. I suggest you find someone to talk about your problem with in person. Radford Neal . . ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at: . http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ . =================================================================
