Teresa,

Suppose your observed table looks like this:

Column 1 Column 2 Total
Row 1 O11 O12 n1.
Row 2 O21 O22 n2.
Total n.1 n.2 n..

Consider the marginal totals (the n's) to be fixed. O11 is the test statistic and has a hypergeometric distribution. Think of an urn with n.1 red balls and n.2 black balls. If you randomly sample n1. balls from the urn, O11 is the number of balls in the sample that are red. Different values of O11 have different probabilities that are given by the hypergeometric distribution.

Jackie Dietz

Teresa from Oregon wrote:

I was doing a little mental calisthenics today and got myself confused
about how this test is calculated. My (perhaps naive) understanding is
that all potential sets of results from, say, a 2x2 table are
calculated and then the exact probability of the actual observed
result occurring simply by chance is determined. This is why there is
no associated test statistic, just p.

My question is: If the test is distributionless, wouldn't the
probability of all unique results be equal? Or...put another way...Is
Fisher's exact one of those sneaky nonparametrics that really does
rely upon an underlying distribution?

Thanks.
.
.
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