I have collected some data using older adults have found a significant
difference (p < .05) between the three groups in terms of their activity
level. Subsequent to this analysis I am contrasting the three groups on a
balance measure and deciding whether or not to use activity level as a
covariate in the ANOVA calculations.

The question I have is whether or not to use activity level as a covariate
or not, based on the fact that the main effect for activity level violated
the assumptions of the homogeneity of regression slopes when compared with
one of the DV used in the study. I do have a small sample size and
consequently did not use the covariate analysis but wanted to see if I was
justified based on the violation listed above.

Any help would be appreciated.

Thanks,

Clark Dickin


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