On Thu, 12 Jun 2003 16:01:27 GMT, "Patrick Agin" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
[ ... ] > > So my question is : if V is a general linear transformation with v_i * v_i' > = 1 (where ' denotes the transpose and i = 1..q) but not the eigenvector > matrix, not even orthogonal (so the matrix does not qualify as a rigid > rotation of the axes), is there a way to express the percentage of explained > variation by the "factor" 1? > Any score will express (or "explain") some percentage of the variance. The full set adds up to something other than 100% if the rotation was not orthogonal. If they overlap, the contribution of two taken together is less than their apparent sum. -- Rich Ulrich, [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://www.pitt.edu/~wpilib/index.html "Taxes are the price we pay for civilization." Justice Holmes. . . ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at: . http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ . =================================================================
