[EMAIL PROTECTED] (Herman Rubin) wrote in message news:<[EMAIL PROTECTED]>...
> In article <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>,
> Duncan Smith <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> 
> >"wuzzy" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message
> >news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> >> I asked this elswhere, this group may be more appropriate, appologies
> >> for simple question?
>  
> >> Can someone describe an algorithm in MS Excel to find the posterior
> >> distribution given a likelihood function (=BINOMDIST) and a prior
> >> distribution (=NORMDIST mu=0, sigma=0.05)?
> >> I know that it is proportional to  L*P (likelihood times prior).
> >> [anyone know how to calculate the denominator in excel?]
>  
> >> But what is an exact algorithm?!
>  
> >> For instance I was considering sampling 10 random parameters in ten
> >> columns
> >> of BINOMDIST()*NORMDIST(from 1..10) for each case.  But what does this
> >> product tell me? how do I actually plot the distribution?
>  
> >> Thanks
>  
> >Does it make sense to have a Normal prior (particularly with mu=0) with a
> >Binomial likelihood?  If a Beta prior makes at least as much sense it makes
> >the maths much easier.
>  
> >Duncan

True, I do expect to see alot of #DIV/0 with mu=0.  
I've posted something like what I was looking for on
http://members.rogers.com/spsstutor/bayes.xls
(not sure if the site is up properly though)

What I was trying to do (probably failed) is a bayesian logistic
regression.
I like having the likelihood and prior on separate sheets each
sampling parameters from -0.07 to +0.07.  Then I multiply these and
divide by the SUMPRODUCT(likelihood,prior) to get the posterior and I
use a new sheet to draw it out. My sheet may be totally wrong but that
is the idea of what I was looking for..

Also wanted to experiment with the effect of changing the sample size
and changing the sigma, mu of the prior on the posterior I can do it
with the above, but not sure if its right (just experimenting).
.
.
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