I found in one of the textbooks we use that calculating correlation coefficients is not meaningful when you have categorical data. However, using dummy variables should be possible, shouldn't it? Either when you have one ordinary numerica variable and one dummy, or even when you have two dummy variables. If not, could someone please put me in the right direction so I can stop be so hesitating in class...Comments are welcome, even if it turns out that I should have understood this.
--robert . . ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at: . http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ . =================================================================
