Dear All Some books say that the coefficient of variation can only be used if the random variable is positive. I would like to know why cannot one extend the use of the same coefficient with not necessarily positive random variables but with positive mean. Could somebody here please help me?
Thank you a lot in advance! Paul . . ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at: . http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ . =================================================================
