Robert J. MacG. Dawson writes:

>       So, the question is - can we assume that the probability of an "error"
>in the larger "dictionary" is independent of whether the "word" is
>included in the smaller "dictionary"?  If so, this becomes a fairly
>trivial exercise in binomial sampling.

Yes, you can assume that the probability of an error in the larger dictionary
is independent of whether the word is included in the smaller dictionary.

How can I learn to do this trivial exercise?

Ignorantly,
Allan Adler
[EMAIL PROTECTED]

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