There is an effect; there are tests you can do to see if it is
statistically significant (I'm pretty sure it would be, in this case;
you made it pretty extreme).  But without some additional variable to
attempt to explain it, I'm still at a loss to say what you could say
about the effect other than Tom plays badly against Harry.

Why does Tom play badly against Harry?  Does Tom have a style which is
poorly matched to Harry's?  Was part of the match played while Tom was
drunk? Did Harry threaten to beat Tom up if he won?  or what?  

Peter

<<<
I'll try the example route you suggest

Lets take three players; Tom, Dick and Harry who have elo ratings of
1600,1500 and 1400 respectively.
Now according to http://tournaments.tantrix.co.uk/ratings/simple.shtml
, the ELO ratings can be interpreted probabilistically as follows:
Tom would be expected to beat Dick 57% of the time and Harry 64% of
the time. Dick would also expect to beat Harry 57% of the time.

Now lets imagine they had played each other 100 times, so that the
following table could be drawn up:

Tom v Dick - Tom has 57 wins, 43 losses
Tom v Harry - Tom has 50 wins, 50 losses
Dick v Harry - Dick has 57 wins, 43 losses

It can be seen that, mirable dictu, Toms record against Dick and Dicks
record against Harry are in line (exactly!) with the expected win/loss
record.

The 'anomaly' seems to be Toms record against Harry - we would expect
64 wins and 36 losses, but we have a 50:50 record. Is this just
chance, or is there a 'head to head effect'?

If there is an effect, a follow-on question might be how can one
modify the probabilistic interpretation of ELO above to account for
this new effect.
>>>>.


Peter L. Flom, PhD
Assistant Director, Statistics and Data Analysis Core
Center for Drug Use and HIV Research
National Development and Research Institutes
71 W. 23rd St
www.peterflom.com
New York, NY 10010
(212) 845-4485 (voice)
(917) 438-0894 (fax)


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