Dick Startz <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in
news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]: 

> The suggestion below is the right idea, but I think is off in a
> detail. Doing least squares we take the partial derivatives of the sum
> of (y-b1-b2*x)^2 with respect to b1 and b2. I think the derivative
> w.r.t x is given below by mistake.

Yep, I realized that a little while after posting.  Using the derivative 
with respect to b1 (2*(b1+b2*x-y)) works, though, since the subexpression 
that needs to be zero is the same.'
.
.
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