In a message of Tue, 29 Mar 2011 13:27:20 +1300, Carl Cerecke writes:
>Yes. You are right. But so was I (on the second time around):
>
>a=1
>b=1
>
>a and b could refer to the same object or different objects with the same
>value. It depends on implementation details. I agree here.
>
>a=1
>b=a
>
>a and b refer to the *same* object here regardless of implementation.
>Massimo said they were different, because b+= 2 doesn't change a. That
>statement is incorrect.
>
>That's really all I was trying to say. I wasn't trying to be philsophical
>about Platonic singleness in the universe or whatever.
>
>Cheers,
>Carl.

Ok.  I still found the way you said that confusing. Sorry about that.

Laura
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