Hey
If I have a bean FooBean which have two methods, doSomething and fooBar,
of which doSomething has tx setting SUPPORTS and fooBar has REQUIRED.
What happens if a client (without a tx) calls doSomething, and that
method calls fooBar in the same bean? Then the fooBar method would be
executed without a transaction since there is no EJBObject that is being
called that can start the tx.
So, is this a bad idea? (rhethoric)
The workaround would be to do ctx.getEJBObject() in doSomething and call
fooBar through that, which could start the tx.
Has anyone else run into this? Did you solve this as above? Shouldn't
this be mentioned somewhere in the spec? (Is it? :-)
/Rickard
--
Rickard �berg
@home: +46 13 177937
Email: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Homepage: http://www-und.ida.liu.se/~ricob684
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