Although not specifically prohibited in the spec why would you call a
statefull session bean from a stateless session bean? the session would only
last as long as the method call. It seems redundant to me.
Yes I know this is not an answer, but now im curious as to the whys and
wherefores. :)
Al
----- Original Message -----
From: "Lan Zhong" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Friday, June 23, 2000 12:08 PM
Subject: Help!! How to remove a stateful session bean from another session
bean
> Hi,
>
> We are experiencing serious design problem: in our
> system, there is only one stateful session bean
> SessionBeanB, another session bean (say SessionBean
> A) calls SessionBeanB in A's method: invokeB(), and
> then tries to remove it within invokeB(). (both
> SessionBeanA and SessionBeanB are TX_REQUIRED).
> According to EJB spec, a stateful session bean cannot
> be removed if it participates in a transaction.
> Therefore, we have to delay the
> removing of SessionBeanB until the transaction
> completes, which means it cannot be removed in A's
> method invokeB().
>
> My question is : where and when shall we remove B?
> The approach we try to use is to delay the removal of
> SessionBeanB until we remove the parent bean
> SessionBeanA. The code is somthing like this:
>
> SessionBeanA: ejbRemove() {
> SessionBeanB.remove();
> }
>
> However, another problem arises: In order to make
> the above code work, we have to model SessionBeanA as
> a stateful session bean, for a stateless session
> bean's ejbRemove is never called by the client.
> Therefore, we have to model all of the session beans
> in our system which access SessionBeanB as stateful
> session beans as well, just for being able to remove
> SessionBeanB in their ejbRemove() method.
>
> Sorry for the long post, but we really need help to
> solve the design issue. We are using Weblogic Server
> 4.5.1.
>
> Thanks!!!
>
> ---Lan
>
>
>
>
>
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