Jameson--
I said or implied that your criterion was un-applyable because no one can
establish
that someone preferred opppositely to how s/he voted.
I take that back. Your criterion isn't unapplyable for that reason.
After all, the failure-example-writer can say anything s/he wants to about any
matter
stipulated in the criterion's premise. As the failure-example-writer, you can
say:
"That voter prefers B to A, though voting for A, because I say so." You, after
all,
are the one writing the scenario.
For that reason, every method would fail your criterion
...or would if it were written in a way that said something.
But it isn't.
So, really one can only say that it isn't that you've written a criterion that
is un-applyable.
One can only say that you haven't written a criterion, because you haven't
written something
that has a meaning.
Why do I say that? What do you mean by "votes for A"? Votes A over B as I've
defined the term?
Votes for A when the method is Plurality? (So your criterion applies only to
Plurality?)
If s/he votes A over B as I define that, then A will probably be elected, but
not necessarily,
depending on the method. But of course even the fact that it _could_ elect A
(and would, with every
method ever proposed or used), means that every method fails your criterion.
Criteria that are necessarily failed by every method aren't at all useful.
Anyway, you didn't say what you meant by "votes for A", and that means that you
haven't
really defined your criterion.
I just wanted to tell you some things that are wrong with your criterion.
Here are your two "definitions" of your inadequately-defined criterion.
Reductio ad absurdem. One voter, two candidates. Preference-based
criterion: "If the voter votes for A but actually prefers B, then B should
win".
Preference-mentioning criterion: "Imagine the voter prefers B, but due to
an epileptic seizure, votes for A. The correct winner in this case would be
B. Therefore, whenever we see a vote for A, we should elect B."
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