I don't have the text but the difference in conductivity and permeability are opposite trends, so I wouldn't be surprised if at some particular frequency the skin depths would be equal.
From: [email protected] Reply-To: [email protected] List-Post: [email protected] List-Post: [email protected] List-Post: [email protected] List-Post: [email protected] Date: Fri, 8 Aug 2003 13:33:24 EDT To: [email protected] Subject: Clayton Pauls - Intro to EMC - an error or two? for those that have the text My anal-retentive self is having some trouble with an occasional example in the text and I need either a confirmation or a slap in the forehead. I was just fiddling around with the text and reviewing some of the examples and in section 6.4 he presents a table of skin depth for copper, but then in question 6.2 he asks for the skin depth of steel - and the numbers for the skin depth are the same. My calculations say otherwise and makes sense to me since the permeability is different between the materials. copper = 1 and steel is 1000, that and the conductivity is different between the two. If you have the text and little or nothing else to do could you give me the number you come up with? ( in mm's or mils) When I'm trying to learn or relearn stuff and I'm at odds with the various references it just drives me wild and I don't have anyone else to confer with up here. One is torn between the I'm right response and the author's obvious authority on the subject. Thanks Befuddled (Gary)
