Jeremy Ashkenas wrote:
Everywhere else in the language, `?` means existence (not null or
undefined) -- but when used to call a function, the check ensures that
the value is callable as well. In a DWIM sense, this makes sense,
because the only things you'd ever want to try to call in JavaScript
must be callable ... but I think it's strange that the meaning of
"existence" alters itself just for this use case. I opened a ticket
talking about rolling it back to "null or undefined" semantics here:
https://github.com/jashkenas/coffee-script/issues/2315
Apart from people misreading the proposal in this issue, it does seem to
be removing a bit of utility, but perhaps that's not actually used? Do
CS users try to ?(-invoke a maybe-function that is sometimes neither
null nor undefined nor typeof-type "function", but rather something that
coerces to object?
The way to get ?( into JS is by a longer spelling:
options.success?.(response)
Pretty ugly, but it puts the ? magic right where the maybe-test belongs.
/be
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