Essentially yes. Minor issues inline
On Mon, Apr 11, 2016 at 10:32 PM, /#!/JoePea <j...@trusktr.io> wrote:
> So just to clarify, the code following an await statement should never
> run in the tick in which the await statement is executed, should never
> run in the same tick in which the promise it is awaiting gets
> resolved,
Settled.
If unresolved promise p becomes resolved to unresolved promise q, then p is
resolved but not settled.
If q is then fulfilled or rejected, then q is settled and p is settled in
the same way.
> and so should always run in a 3rd tick separate from those
> other two?
>
It should always run in a tick after the ticks in which those other two
events happen. However, to be fully pedantic, those other two events may
happen in one tick, so the post-await computation, happening after both,
would happen in a second tick.
Btw, I assume your "tick" is equivalent to our "turn" or "job". Tick is not
bad but neither is it clearly better. We should not introduce a third term
since we already have more than we need.
>
> On Mon, Apr 11, 2016 at 1:36 PM, Mark Miller <erig...@gmail.com> wrote:
> > On Mon, Apr 11, 2016 at 9:31 PM, Mark S. Miller <erig...@google.com>
> wrote:
> >>
> >> Not necessarily "the next tick", but some future tick. Definitely not in
> >> this tick or the tick in which the promise is resolved.
> >
> >
> > Meant: "or the tick in which the promise is settled."
> >
> >
> >>
> >> Definitely in its own tick.
> >>
> >> And yes, engines can always do whatever unobservable optimizations they
> >> want.
> >>
> >>
> >> On Mon, Apr 11, 2016 at 6:00 PM, Jordan Harband <ljh...@gmail.com>
> wrote:
> >>>
> >>> As I understand it, `await` always fires in the next tick, if it's
> >>> observable.
> >>>
> >>> The opportunity to optimize that to "same tick" exists if an engine can
> >>> prove it's not observable.
> >>>
> >>> On Mon, Apr 11, 2016 at 9:54 AM, Andrea Giammarchi
> >>> <andrea.giammar...@gmail.com> wrote:
> >>>>
> >>>> > I suppose I'm asking for cases where the await statement's promise
> is
> >>>> > unresolved.
> >>>>
> >>>> isn't that a "forever pending"? then AFAIK it should "forever await"
> ...
> >>>> right?
> >>>>
> >>>> On Mon, Apr 11, 2016 at 5:50 PM, /#!/JoePea <j...@trusktr.io> wrote:
> >>>>>
> >>>>> Is code that follows an await statement supposed to get executed in
> >>>>> the same tick in which the statement's awaited promise is resolved?
> >>>>> F.e.:
> >>>>>
> >>>>> ```js
> >>>>> let resolve = null
> >>>>> const somePromise = new Promise(r => resolve = r)
> >>>>>
> >>>>> ~async function() {
> >>>>> await somePromise
> >>>>> doSomething()
> >>>>> }()
> >>>>>
> >>>>> // ... time passes
> >>>>> resolve()
> >>>>> ```
> >>>>>
> >>>>> Should `doSomething()` fire in that same tick as when `resolve()` is
> >>>>> called? I already know that if this is true, there's at least one
> >>>>> exception: `await Promise.resolve()`, in that the await statement
> must
> >>>>> still defer to a future tick even though the given Promise is already
> >>>>> resolved. I suppose I'm asking for cases where the await statement's
> >>>>> promise is unresolved.
> >>>>>
> >>>>> - Joe
> >>>>> _______________________________________________
> >>>>> es-discuss mailing list
> >>>>> es-discuss@mozilla.org
> >>>>> https://mail.mozilla.org/listinfo/es-discuss
> >>>>
> >>>>
> >>>>
> >>>> _______________________________________________
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> >>>>
> >>>
> >>>
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> >>>
> >>
> >>
> >>
> >> --
> >> Cheers,
> >> --MarkM
> >>
> >> _______________________________________________
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> >> https://mail.mozilla.org/listinfo/es-discuss
> >>
> >
> >
> >
> > --
> > Cheers,
> > --MarkM
> >
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> > https://mail.mozilla.org/listinfo/es-discuss
> >
>
--
Cheers,
--MarkM
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