Two questions on the minor issue of the following not assigning a name
to the function:
```js
obj.foo = function() { };
```
1) Am I correct that the only reason it doesn't (in spec terms) is
that Step 1.e. of [Runtime Semantics:
Evaluation](https://tc39.github.io/ecma262/#sec-assignment-operators-runtime-semantics-evaluation)
reads
> If IsAnonymousFunctionDefinition(AssignmentExpression) and IsIdentifierRef of
> LeftHandSideExpression are both true, then
and that changing that to
> If IsAnonymousFunctionDefinition(AssignmentExpression) is true and either
> IsIdentifierRef of LeftHandSideExpression is true or IsPropertyReference of
> LeftHandSideExpression is true, then
would mean it would assign the name `foo`? (The subsequent step
getting the name to use already uses GetReferencedName, which works
for property references as well as identifier references.)
2) Are there any objections to closing this gap in how function names
are assigned?
-- T.J.
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